These question pools have been merged for a combined Technician and General license instructional class where we will be "teaching to the test". All answers are shown below the questions, with the correct answer in bold italics. Teacher comments are highlighted and are not part of the question pool. Hams teaching licensing classes are welcome to use this as a resource. Questions intended for in-class review are marked with an asterisk. If you have corrections or suggestions for additions to the comments, please send a polite note to N4RPY at aqdi dot com.
The question pools are divided into ten subelements, with the Technician and General class pools having similar subject matter for each subelements. These subelements are interleaved below so all the related subject matter is collected for both license classes. Reading through the document, it becomes apparent that the Technician questions cover the basics, and the General questions cover the same material in more depth. The beginning student is encouraged to work through the General questions as well because if you know the Technician material you are about 75% of the way to passing your General exam!
The teacher comments sometimes contain links to web sites having more information on a topic. There are a lot of great resources on the web, and many expert descriptions and videos are available with a simple search. Explore!
There are a lot of questions here, but do not be discouraged! Many of the questions are asked repeatedly in different forms. If you can answer one, you can answer them all. Just start at the beginning and work a section a day, and in a month you will be ready for your test.
There are many online sample test sites, such as this one. Take the sample tests periodically. When you reach 85%-95% on every try, you are ready to take the real test.
These pool questions have been taken from documents at the ARRL's web site.
73
N4RPY
Revision: 07-Jan-16
The purpose of the Amateur Radio Service is set forth in Code of Federal Regulations, Title 47, Part 97, authored by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC):
| BACKGROUND 97.1 Basis and purpose. |
*T1A01 (C) [97.1] Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service as stated in the FCC rules and regulation
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*T1A02 (C) [97.1] Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?
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*T1A03 (D) Which part of the FCC regulations contains the rules governing the Amateur Radio Service?
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*T1A04 (C) [97.3(a)(23)] Which of the following meets the FCC definition of harmful interference?
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Harmful interference is something that every amateur must avoid. Intentional interference is never tolerated, even if in reprisal for other interference. Accidental interference must be avoided by understanding the rules of what frequencies we can transmit on, when and where we can transmit, how much power (measured in watts) we can use during transmission, and common courtesy (asking if the frequency is in use). Harmful interference is defined as a transmission that "degrades, obstructs, or repeatedly interrupts".
T1A05 (A) [97.1 (e)] Which of the following is a purpose of the Amateur Radio Service rules and regulations as defined by the FCC?
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*T1A06 (D) [97.101 (d), 97.303 (o)(2)] Which of the following services are protected from interference by amateur signals under all circumstances?
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While we must generally not interfere, the Radionavigation Service has unconditional protection due to the important nature of these signals.
*T1A07 (C) [97.3(a)(46)] What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telemetry?
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Telemetry is "A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument." This is simply a method of monitoring equipment at a remote location via radio. Television stations might monitor remote transmitters on mountain tops without having a person there all the time, for example.
*T1A08 (B) [97.3(a)(22)] Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?
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There are thousands of repeaters and auxiliary stations
in the US, mainly operating in the VHF and UHF bands. Cooperative
coordination prevents interference, say, between two repeaters in different
states located on the tops of high mountains. Their coverage areas might
overlap, preventing reliable communication by us in the overlapping area.
Coordinators avoid this by assigning different operating frequencies to
potentially overlapping repeaters. See the
National Frequency Coordinator's Council web site.
T1A09 (C) [97.3(a)(22)] Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?
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*T1A10 (A) [97.3(a)(5)] What is the FCC Part 97 definition of an amateur station?
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A station is just the apparatus or equipment. It does not include the licensee. A station might also have a "control point" located remotely, which is easy these days using the Internet. Most of the time the station's control point is where the station equipment is located. Here are some impressive station pictures. Most ham stations are much more modest!
T1A11 (B) [97.101 (d)] When is willful interference to other amateur radio stations permitted?
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This is actually a crime and the FCC fines perhaps a dozen or two amateurs each year for willful interference, though it has to be pretty bad to warrant their attention.
T1A12 (D) Which of the following is a permissible use of the Amateur Radio Service?
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We are actually prohibited from broadcasting, earning money, or serving business interests.
T1A13 (C) [97.3(a)(45)] What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telecommand?
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This is related to telemetry, where a command could be sent to a device to control its behavior, say, turning it on or off. Telemetry information usually flows from some remote device to a central control point, and telecommands usually from from the central control point to a remote device.
T1A14 (A) [97.303(d)] What must you do if you are operating on the 23 cm band and learn that you are interfering with a radiolocation station outside the United States?
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Radiolocation is unconditionally protected from interference.
*T1B01 (B) What is the ITU?
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The FCC and ITU are different entities. The FCC is a US agency, and the ITU is international. The FCC works within the ITU with other countries to coordinate and cooperate in use of the radio spectrum. Here is some more information.
T1B02 (A) [97.301] Why are the frequency assignments for some U.S. Territories different from those in the 50 U.S. States?
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There are three ITU regions across the world. We are in region 2, containing North and South America. Here is some more information.
*T1B03 (B) [97.301(a)] Which frequency is within the 6 meter band?
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Formula: frequency=300,000,000/wavelength, so w=300,000,000/6 meters=50,000,000=50MHz. See this good band chart.
*T1B04 (A) [97.301(a)] Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz?
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Formula: wavelength=300,000,000/frequency, so w=300,000,000/146.52 million=2.048 meters. See this good band chart.
T1B05 (C) [97.301(a)] Which 70 cm frequency is authorized to a Technician Class license holder operating in ITU Region 2?
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T1B06 (B) [97.301(a)] Which 23 cm frequency is authorized to a Technician Class licensee?
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T1B07 (D) [97.301(a)] What amateur band are you using if you are transmitting on 223.50 MHz?
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*T1B08 (A) [97.303] Which of the following is a result of the fact that the amateur service is secondary in some portions of the 70 cm band?
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Several ham bands designate that we are "secondary". We must always avoid interference, and must be particularly aware of this on these bands.
*T1B09 (D) [97.101(a), 97.301(a-e)] Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?
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All transmissions carrying information have some bandwidth. This is the frequency spectrum that is occupied. For example, a voice transmission on single sideband occupies a bandwidth of about 2.8KHz (kilo Hertz). If you tune your transmitter to the edge of a ham band and have a conversation, some of that energy may fall outside the ham band, putting you in violation of FCC regulations.
Note that the tuning display on modern transceivers shows the carrier frequency. For single sideband signals (SSB), you are only using the upper or lower sideband, which is on the upper or lower side of the carrier. So if you tune the transceiver to the upper band edge and transmit using upper sideband, you will be transmitting out of the band. It's always a good idea to stay 5KHz away from the upper edge of the HF bands and you will never transmit outside the band (since the bandwidth is less than 5KHz)!
*T1B10 (C) [97.301(e), 97.305(c)] Which of the bands above 30 MHz that are available to Technician Class operators have mode-restricted sub-bands?
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Or the 50MHz, 144MHz, and 220MHz bands. Mode restricted means that the communication mode is restricted. For example, the lower end of each band is reserved for CW (Morse code) and data, or even radio beacons and satellite communications.
*T1B11 (A) [97.301(a), 97.305 (a)(c)] What emission modes are permitted in the mode-restricted sub-bands at 50.0 to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 to 144.1 MHz?
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CW = Morse code, RTTY = radioteletype (typically using computers), SSB = single sideband (voice).
*T1B12 (B) [97.301] Why are frequency assignments for U.S. stations operating maritime mobile not the same everywhere in the world?
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Maritime mobile is operation from a ship on the water (fresh or salt!).
T1B13 (B) [97.305(c)] Which emission may be used between 219 and 220 MHz?
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"Data" typically means computer to computer communications, say, when you connect your PC to your radio and communicate with another ham with a similar setup.
*T1C01 (C) [97.3(a)(11)(iii)] Which type of call sign has a single letter in both its prefix and suffix
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These are temporary call signs, for example for a Boy Scout event, or national holiday. For the general format of call signs, see the table on this page.
*T1C02 (B) Which of the following is a valid US amateur radio station call sign?
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*T1C03 (A) [97.117] What types of international communications are permitted by an FCC-licensed amateur station?
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Foreign countries do not want us conducting business using ham radio. Only personal communications (say, between relatives or friends), or about ham radio topics, such as what equipment you are using, or technical matters. See this list of third party agreeing countries.
*T1C04 (A) [97.107] When are you allowed to operate your amateur station in a foreign country?
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Each country can have different rules. When traveling to another country, it's good to check ahead. See this list of countries with a reciprocal operating agreement with the US.
T1C05 (A) Which of the following is a vanity call sign which a technician class amateur operator might select if available?
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A vanity call sign is a custom call sign you request from the FCC, which replaces your FCC-assigned call sign. For example, John Q. Smith might request the call K4JQS, which matches his initials. There are web sites which show what call signs are taken and which are available. Many hams have vanity calls. See this page for more information.
T1C06 (D) [97.5(a)(2)] From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit, in addition to places where the FCC regulates communications?
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This is called maritime mobile operation.
*T1C07 (B) [97.23] What may result when correspondence from the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to provide the correct mailing address?
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You can use a PO box as your address with the FCC. The FCC does not send you mail generally unless you have violated some regulation; that is, hopefully never!
*T1C08 (C) [97.25] What is the normal term for an FCC-issued primary station/operator amateur radio license grant?
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T1C09 (A) [97.21(a)(b)] What is the grace period following the expiration of an amateur license within which the license may be renewed?
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*T1C10 (C) [97.5a] How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you operate a transmitter on an amateur service frequency?
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The database (ULS = Universal Licensing System) is available online.
T1C11 (A) [97.21(b)] If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to operate a transmitter on amateur service frequencies?
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T1C12 (D) [97.19] Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?
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T1C13 (D) [97.9(a), 97.17(a)] For which licenses classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?
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The FCC has reworked the license classes numerous times over the years. What we have now is pretty simple compared to past systems.
T1C14 (D) [97.21(a) (1)] Who may select a vanity call sign for a club station?
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This might be a group of hams, a group of students, a Boy Scout group, or any other group of hams wanting to form a ham club.
T1D01 (A) [97.111(a)(1)] With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur stations prohibited from exchanging communications?
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However, many countries you would think would be hostile to ham radio are not. It is common to hear Cuban stations communicating with US stations, for example.
T1D02 (A) [97.111(a)(5)] On which of the following occasions may an FCC-licensed amateur station exchange messages with a U.S. military station?
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*T1D03 (C) [97.211(b), 97.215(b)] When is the transmission of codes or ciphers that hide the meaning of a message allowed by an amateur station?
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Hams can generally not transmit encrypted communications. However, these control commands are so important to protect that they can be encrypted. Otherwise someone might be able to damage a satellite, which would be expensive or impossible to repair.
T1D04 (A) [97.113(a)(4), 97.113(c)] What is the only time an amateur station is authorized to transmit music?
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This was a problem that arose when astronauts played music during their communications with earth.
T1D05 (A) [97.113(a)(3)(ii)] When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?
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Hams buy and sell gear all the time, and they can use radio to facilitate these sales.
T1D06 (B) [97.113(a)(4)] What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?
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You can hear indecent language from time to time on ham bands. The best thing to do is ignore the perpetrators.
*T1D07 (B) [97.113(d)] What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?
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These types of stations enable thousands or millions of hams to transmit much farther than usual because the repeater or space stations are so high above the average terrain. Auxiliary stations are typically stations within networks of repeaters that connect the repeaters we access. So, when you talk on a repeater in a linked system, your voice might be traveling through more than one radio system, or even the Internet! Here is an example of a linked repeater system in North Carolina and Virginia.
*T1D08 (B) [97.113(a)(3)(iii)] In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating the station?
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T1D09 (A) [97.113(5)(b)] Under which of the following circumstances are amateur stations authorized to transmit signals related to broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?
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Hams may not work for broadcasters gathering news and communicating it to them over ham radio, for example.
T1D10 (D) [97.3(a)(10)] What is the meaning of the term "broadcasting" in the FCC rules for the amateur services?
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T1D11 (D) [97.119(a)] When may an amateur station transmit without identifying?
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Typically radio controlled aircraft or other models.
T1D12 (B) [97.111(b)(4,5,6) Under which of the following circumstances may an amateur radio station engage in broadcasting?
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For example, the ARRL station, W1AW, transmits Morse code practice and information bulletins daily.
Important: Understand that there is 1) a station licensee, and 2) a control operator, which is usually the licensee, but could be another amateur. The privileges of the station are limited to the privileges of the control operator making the transmission.
*T1E01 (D) [97.7(a)] When is an amateur station permitted to transmit without a control operator?
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In the case of a radio repeater, usually several hams are designated as control operators, and listen to the repeater throughout the day. If a problem arises, the control operator takes action to correct it.
*T1E02 (D) [97.7(a)] Who may a station licensee designate to be the control operator of an amateur station?
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That is, only a licensed amateur.
T1E03 (A) [97.103(b)] Who must designate the station control operator?
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The station licensee is the usual control operator, but may designate another licensed ham as the control operator.
*T1E04 (D) [97.103(b)] What determines the transmitting privileges of an amateur station?
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Today that would be Technician, General, or Extra.
T1E05 (C) [97.3(a)(14)] What is an amateur station control point?
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The control point is usually where the transmitter is, but could be remote, or in the case of Internet control, across the world.
T1E06 (A) [97.109(d)] Under what type of control do APRS network digipeaters operate?
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APRS = Automatic Packet Reporting System. These systems take GPS location information from a ham's radio and GPS receiver and relay it through a network to make it available to other hams. Hams use this capability for logging their location, say on a hike or car trip. See this web site for more information.
T1E07 (D) [97.103(a)] When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?
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*T1E08 (A) [97.3(a)(6), 97.205(d)] Which of the following is an example of automatic control?
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Typical for repeater operation on 2 meters and 70 centimeters. No one is on top of the mountain with the repeater; it is automatically controlled.
T1E09 (D) [97.109(b)] What type of control is being used when the control operator is at the control point?
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T1E10 (B) [97.3(a)(39)] Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?
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Echolink is a typical example, and many 2m/70cm repeaters are Echolink capable, where you can use a remote repeater through your computer over the Interet.
T1E11 (D) [97.103(a)] Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?
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T1E12 (A) [97.119(e)] When, under normal circumstances, may a Technician Class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an exclusive Extra Class operator segment of the amateur bands?
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Licensees must stay in their alotted areas. See this good band chart.
*T1F01 (A) What type of identification is being used when identifying a station on the air as Race Headquarters?
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A tactical call sign is an unofficial, non-FCC call sign. You must also identify at the end of each communication and every ten minutes using your FCC call sign.
T1F02 (C) [97.119 (a)] When using tactical identifiers such as "Race Headquarters" during a community service net operation, how often must your station transmit the station's FCC-assigned call sign?
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*T1F03 (D) [97.119(a)] When is an amateur station required to transmit its assigned call sign?
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T1F04 (C) [97.119(b)(2)] Which of the following is an acceptable language to use for station identification when operating in a phone sub-band?
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"Phone" = voice. Hams don't use telephones, but they have historically called voice communications "phone". Also, most hams around the world speak enough English to communicate the basics with.
T1F05 (B) [97.119(b)(2)] What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?
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CW = Morse code, phone = voice.
T1F06 (D) [97.119(c)] Which of the following formats of a self-assigned indicator is acceptable when identifying using a phone transmission?
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FYI: The W means that the Alaskan station is operating in the lower 48, and the 3 indicates call area 3 (probably Pennsylvania). See a call area map here.
*T1F07 (B) [97.115(a)(2)] Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person is allowed to speak to a foreign station using a station under the control of a Technician Class control operator?
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T1F08 (D) [97.119(f)] Which indicator is required by the FCC to be transmitted after a station call sign?
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CSCE = Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination, a piece of paper indicating that you passed your FCC exam, given to you by a volunteer examiner.
*T1F09 (C) [97.3(a)(40)] What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?
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T1F10 (A) [97.205(g)] Who is accountable should a repeater inadvertently retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules?
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T1F11 (A) [97.115(a)] To which foreign stations do the FCC rules authorize the transmission of non-emergency third party communications?
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T1F12 (B) [97.5(b)(2)] How many persons are required to be members of a club for a club station license to be issued by the FCC?
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T1F13 (B) [97.103(c)] When must the station licensee make the station and its records available for FCC inspection?
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This is rare because the FCC is understaffed, and only happens when the FCC suspects misbehavior by a ham.
See this good band chart for questions in this section.
*G1A01 (C) [97.301(d)] On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?
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G1A02 (B) [97.305] On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
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This is the only such entire ham band where phone operation is prohibited.
G1A03 (B) [97.305] On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
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This is the only such band.
G1A04 (D) [97.303 (h)] Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
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This is the only such band.
G1A05 (A) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40-meter band?
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The 40 meter band goes from 7.0-7.3MHz.
G1A06 (C) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75-meter phone band?
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The 75 meter phone band stretches from 3.8-4.0MHz. This is also commonly lumped together with 3.5-3.8MHz and called the 80 meter band.
G1A07 (C) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20-meter phone band?
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G1A08 (C) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80-meter band?
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G1A09 (C) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15-meter band?
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G1A10 (D) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?
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G1A11 (B) [97.301] When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
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For example, Extra class hams can use 3.6-4.0MHz for phone (voice) operation, but General class hams can only use 3.8-4.0MHz.
G1A12 (C) [97.303] Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?
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G1A13 (D) [97.303(h)(2)(j)] What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
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G1A14 (B) [97.301(d)] In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC issued General Class license?
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The USA is in region 2. Here is a map of ITU regions. See this good band chart.
*G1B01 (C) [97.15(a)] What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
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G1B02 (D) [97.203(b)] With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
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A beacon station transmits on a particular frequency from a fixed location. The beacon owner publishes this information. You might tune to the frequency of that beacon and listen. If you hear the beacon station, then you will probably be able to communicate with another ham on that band to that area of the world. Thus, beacons help us determine propagation conditions. There are many beacon stations in operation.
*G1B03 (A) [97.3(a)(9)] Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
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G1B04 (A) [97.113(b)] Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?
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G1B05 (D) [97.113(c)] When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
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G1B06 (B) [97.113(a)(4) and 97.207(f)] When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?
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G1B07 (B) [97.113(a)(4)] What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?
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G1B08 (D) [97.101(a)] When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
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G1B09 (A) [97.113(a)(3)] When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
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G1B10 (C) [97.203(c)] What is the power limit for beacon stations?
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PEP = Peak Envelope Power, a way of measuring the power of a transmitted signal.
G1B11 (C) [97.101(a)] How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?
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G1B12 (A) [97.101(a)] Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
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G1C01 (A) [97.313(c)(1)] What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
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The entire 30 meter band is limited to 200 watts PEP.
*G1C02 (C) [97.313(a),(b)] What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?
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Power limits for Technician, General and Extra licensess is 1500 watts PEP on all bands except on 60 meters (100 watts PEP) and 30 meters (200 watts PEP).
G1C03 (A) [97.303(h)(1)] What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
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Typical single sideband (SSB) bandwidth is 2.8KHz, sufficient for voice transmission.
*G1C04 (A) [97.313(a)] Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?
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G1C05 (C) [97.313(c)(2)] Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
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G1C06 (D) [97.313] Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
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*G1C07 (D) [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(3)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?
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300 baud = 300 signaling elements per second, a signaling element understood to be a change in the transmitted tone. The lower the signaling rate, the smaller the bandwidth occupied by the transmission.
G1C08 (D) [97.307(f)(3)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
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*G1C09 (A) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands?
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This is much faster than the 300 baud allowed in the 20 meter band. G1C10 (C) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?
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G1C11 (B) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?
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G1D01 (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)] Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?
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*G1D02 (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)] What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
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*G1D03 (C) [97.9(b)] On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?
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CSCE = Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination, a piece of paper indicating that you passed your FCC exam, given to you by a volunteer examiner.
G1D04 (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)] Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class license examination?
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G1D05 (D) [97.509(b)(3)(i)] Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician Class license examination?
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*G1D06 (A) [97.119(f)(2)] When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website ?
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G1D07 (C) [97.509(b)(1)] Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
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G1D08 (B) [97.509(b)(3)] Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
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G1D09 (C) [97.9(b)] How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
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G1D10 (B) [97.509(b)(2)] What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
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*G1D11 (D) If a person has an expired FCC issued amateur radio license of General Class or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license?
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They must pass at least the Technician element. Element 2 = Technician, 3 = General, 4 = Extra.
*G1E01 (A) [97.115(b)(2)] Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?
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A person whose license has been revoked (due to rule violations), is not allowed to use ham radio to communicate, even as a third party.
*G1E02 (D) [97.205(b)] When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
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Technicians are normally not allowed to operate in the whole 10 meter band (they have privileges only from 28.3-28.5MHz). But in this case, they could transmit on the 10 meter band (through this uncommon repeater setup). The limiting factor is the license class of the repeater control operator.
G1E03 (A) [97.221] What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
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*G1E04 (D) [97.13(b), 97.303, 97.311(b)] Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
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An operator is always required to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference! A possible exception is where a consumer device is poorly manufactured and the amateur has verified his station is working within proper standards.
G1E05 (C) [97.115(a)(2),97.117] What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
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G1E06 (A) [97.205(c)] Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
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G1E07 (C) [97.115(a)(2)] With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?
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It takes a third party agreement to allow such communications. By default they are prohibited. This is not an issue when simply talking to hams in most countries, but only when passing messages to/from third parties, usually unlicensed persons (family, friends).
G1E08 (B) [97.115(a)(b)] Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC-granted license at which an FCC licensed control operator is present?
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G1E09 (C) [97.119(b)(2)] What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?
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G1E10 (D) [97.205(b)] *** QUESTION REMOVED BY QPC February 4, 2015**** What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?
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G1E11 (C) [97.221] Which of the following is the FCC term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet?
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G1E12 (A) [97.115] Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication?
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All the same third party rules apply to digital communications.
G1E13 (D) [97.221, 97.305] On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?
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*T2A01 (B) What is the most common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band?
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*T2A02 (D) What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 70 cm band?
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*T2A03 (A) What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?
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*T2A04 (B) What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?
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*T2A05 (C) How should you respond to a station calling CQ?
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T2A06 (A) What must an amateur operator do when making on-air transmissions to test equipment or antennas?
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T2A07 (D) Which of the following is true when making a test transmission?
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T2A08 (D) What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?
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*T2A09 (B) What brief statement is often transmitted in place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a repeater?
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T2A10 (A) What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?
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T2A11 (D) [97.313(a)] Which of the following is an FCC rule regarding power levels used in the amateur bands, under normal, non-distress circumstances?
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T2A12 (D) Which of the following is a guideline to use when choosing an operating frequency for calling CQ?
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*T2B01 (C) What is the term used to describe an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?
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*T2B02 (D) What is the term used to describe the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?
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*T2B03 (B) Which of the following describes the muting of receiver audio controlled solely by the presence or absence of an RF signal?
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T2B04 (D) Which of the following common problems might cause you to be able to hear but not access a repeater even when transmitting with the proper offset?
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*T2B05 (C) What determines the amount of deviation of an FM (as opposed to PM) signal?
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T2B06 (A) What happens when the deviation of an FM transmitter is increased?
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T2B07 (A) What could cause your FM signal to interfere with stations on nearby frequencies?
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T2B08 (A) Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?
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T2B09 (A) [97.119(b)(2)] Which of the following methods is encouraged by the FCC when identifying your station when using phone?
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Here is a table of the phonetic alphabet.
T2B10 (A) Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?
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This site lists the various Q-signals.
*T2B11 (B) Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?
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*T2B12 (A) Under what circumstances should you consider communicating via simplex rather than a repeater?
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T2B13 (C) Which of the following is true of the use of SSB phone in amateur bands above 50 MHz?
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T2C01 (D) [97.103(a)] When do the FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?
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T2C02 (C) What is one way to recharge a 12-volt lead-acid station battery if the commercial power is out?
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T2C03 (C) What should be done to insure that voice message traffic containing proper names and unusual words are copied correctly by the receiving station?
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*T2C04 (D) What do RACES and ARES have in common?
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T2C05 (D) [97.3(a)(38), 97.407] Which of the following describes the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
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In Virginia, ARES and RACES have merged!
T2C06 (C) Which of the following is an accepted practice to get the immediate attention of a net control station when reporting an emergency?
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T2C07 (C) Which of the following is an accepted practice for an amateur operator who has checked into an emergency traffic net?
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*T2C08 (A) Which of the following is a characteristic of good emergency traffic handling?
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*T2C09 (D) Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?
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T2C10 (D) What is the preamble in a formal traffic message?
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T2C11 (A) What is meant by the term "check" in reference to a formal traffic message?
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*T2C12 (A) What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?
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*G2A01 (A) Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
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G2A02 (B) Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?
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G2A03 (A) Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
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G2A04 (A) Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?
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*G2A05 (C) Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
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*G2A06 (B) Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
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*G2A07 (B) Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?
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G2A08 (B) Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone?
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G2A09 (D) Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands?
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There's no advantage to lower or upper sideband. There is simply a convention of using lower sideband on 160, 40, and 75 meters.
G2A10 (B) Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?
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G2A11 (C) What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?
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CQ = calling any station and DX = distance.
*G2B01 (C) Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?
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*G2B02 (B) What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
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G2B03 (C) If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
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G2B04 (B) When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
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The bandwidth of a CW (Morse code) signal is 150Hz or less. A voice signal transmits well in 2800Hz bandwidth.
*G2B05 (B) What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?
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*G2B06 (A) What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
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G2B07 (C) Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
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G2B08 (A) What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?
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DX = distance. DX is an abbreviation for a distant station, usually in a foreign country.
G2B09 (A) [97.407(a)] Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
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G2B10 (D) [97.407(b)] When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
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G2B11 (A) [97.405] What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
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G2B12 (C) [97.405(b)] When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
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CW = Morse code, which you don't have to know to get a license, but many hams enjoy using it.
G2C01 (D) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
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That is, when you stop transmitting, your radio automatically switches to receive mode. This makes it easier to have a two way conversation.
G2C02 (A) What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?
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G2C03 (C) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
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G2C04 (D) What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?
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G2C05 (B) What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?
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*G2C06 (D) What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?
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This refers to a "beat frequency" which is the difference between your transmit frequency and the other station's. If they differ by 100Hz, for example, you could hear a 100Hz difference tone.
*G2C07 (A) When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?
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A "clean" CW or Morse code signal has no chirps on the signal's tone.
*G2C08 (C) What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
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A "prosign" is a run-on transmission of two letters in Morse code. "AR" means to send an "A" and an "R" with no space between. SK = end of conversation. BK = turning over communication to the other station (quickly, without station ID's). KN = turning over communication to the other station.
G2C09 (C) What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?
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G2C10 (B) What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?
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QRN = noise.
G2C11 (D) What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?
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G2D01 (A) What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
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G2D02 (B) Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?
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G2D03 (B) What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?
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Rarely, offending transmitters need to be tracked down. Two or more directional antennas are used for this.
G2D04 (B) Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
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Azimuth describes the horizontal direction you are looking in as you stand in one location and turn around in a circle.
G2D05 (B) [97.111(a)(1)] When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
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G2D06 (C) How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?
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"Short path" is used by pointing your antenna at the other station. "Long path" transmits in the opposite direction, usually all the way around the earth!
*G2D07 (A) [97.303(i)] Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?
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*G2D08 (D) What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?
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Logging is no longer mandatory. However, you can keep a paper log, or record the information on computer, even in a logging program.
G2D09 (D) What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
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*G2D10 (B) What is QRP operation?
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G2D11 (C) Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
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So that you are sending power toward only the receiving station.
G2E01 (D) Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
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G2E02 (B) How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?
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PACTOR is a data packet mode of communication where you would not normally have your radio speaker turned up. Being able to monitor the channel for activity before transmitting is important. Here is more information on PACTOR.
*G2E03 (D) What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?
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Digital modes can automatically retry transmissions in case of interference like this.
G2E04 (B) What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions?
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*G2E05 (B) What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?
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This is different from the LSB/USB custom for voice communications.
*G2E06 (B) What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
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RTTY uses "frequency shift keying" where the transmitted frequency shifts up and down to send the 1's and 0's of the digital data.
G2E07 (A) What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?
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*G2E08 (D) In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
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Typically, PSK-31 appears on these frequencies by custom:
160 meters 1.838 MHz 6 meters 50.290 MHz 80 meters 3.580 MHz 2 meters 144.144 MHz 40 meters 7.080 MHz 1.25 meters 222.07 MHz 30 meters 10.142 MHz 70 centi-meters 432.2 MHz 20 meters 14.070 MHz 33 centi-meters 909 MHz 17 meters 18.100 MHz 15 meters 21.080 MHz 12 meters 24.920 MHz 10 meters 28.120 MHz
G2E09 (C) How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
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G2E10 (D) Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?
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*G2E11 (D) What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal?
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See an example of a waterfall display.
G2E12 (C) Which of the following describes a waterfall display?
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*G2E13 (A) Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages?
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Winlink is a digital mode used on HF (<30MHz). It can be used to link radios to the internet and email. See this page for more information.
*G2E14 (D) What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?
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Digital signals require the proper setup of several settings in the software used to decode the signals.
*T3A01 (D) What should you do if another operator reports that your station's 2 meter signals were strong just a moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted?
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*T3A02 (B) Why are UHF signals often more effective from inside buildings than VHF signals?
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UHF = 300MHz to 3GHz, VHF = 30MHz to 300MHz. UHF signals are higher in frequency and shorter in wavelength.
T3A03 (C) What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands?
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This is simply a convention and may be arbitrary, but weak signal experts may disagree!
*T3A04 (B) What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?
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You can see this visually by looking through two sets of polarized sunglasses. Rotate one pair and you'll see the light transmission change dramatically.
*T3A05 (B) When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to access a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?
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T3A06 (B) What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting?
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T3A07 (A) What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations?
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The wave has electric and magnetic components.
*T3A08 (C) Which of the following is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals received by ionospheric reflection?
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This results in fading or flutter of the signal, also known as "QSB".
T3A09 (B) Which of the following results from the fact that skip signals refracted from the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?
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Signal polarization can be horizontal, vertical, circular, elliptical, or varying between these at any time!
*T3A10 (D) What may occur if data signals propagate over multiple paths?
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Fading/interference destroys data bits and causes errors.
*T3A11 (C) Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world?
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*T3B01 (C) What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle?
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Wavelength = 300,000,000/Frequency.
T3B02 (A) What property of a radio wave is used to describe its polarization?
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*T3B03 (C) What are the two components of a radio wave?
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T3B04 (A) How fast does a radio wave travel through free space?
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Which is 300,000,000 meters per second.
*T3B05 (B) How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency?
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Wavelength = 300,000,000/Frequency. Frequency = Wavelength/300,000,000.
T3B06 (D) What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?
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Wavelength = 300,000,000/Frequency.
T3B07 (A) What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands?
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T3B08 (B) What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum?
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T3B09 (D) What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum?
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*T3B10 (C) What frequency range is referred to as HF?
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And 0.3MHz to 3MHz = MF or Medium Frequency.
T3B11 (B) What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space?
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The speed of light.
T3C01 (C) Why are direct (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage area?
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*T3C02 (D) Which of the following might be happening when VHF signals are being received from long distances?
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This is a layer of the ionosphere which is not persistent and is infrequently occurring.
T3C03 (B) What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection?
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Because the aurora is constantly changing.
T3C04 (B) Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?
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*T3C05 (A) Which of the following effects might cause radio signals to be heard despite obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?
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This happens around the edges of buildings and terrain features.
*T3C06 (A) What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?
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*T3C07 (B) What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?
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T3C08 (D) What causes tropospheric ducting?
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T3C09 (A) What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F layer?
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F-layer gets thicker during the day and with higher solar activity. The F-layer reflects radio waves back down to earth.
T3C10 (A) What is the radio horizon?
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Direct path = without reflecting off the ionosphere layers (D, E, F, etc).
*T3C11 (C) Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between two stations?
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*T3C12 (A) Which of the following bands may provide long distance communications during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
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More sunspot activity makes the ionosphere layers more effective in reflecting higher frequency radio signals back to earth.
G3A01 (A) What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?
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G3A02 (B) What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
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G3A03 (C) Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth?
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It takes light and UV/Xray radiation about 8 minutes to get from the sun to Earth at the speed of light.
*G3A04 (D) Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
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At sunspot minimums (every 11 years), these bands are pretty much unusable.
G3A05 (D) What is the solar flux index?
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*G3A06 (D) What is a geomagnetic storm?
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G3A07 (D) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
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G3A08 (B) Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?
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*G3A09 (C) What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications?
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G3A10 (C) What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle?
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*G3A11 (D) Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
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*G3A12 (B) What does the K-index indicate?
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G3A13 (C) What does the A-index indicate?
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G3A14 (B) How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?
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*G3A15 (D) How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth?
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These particles travel much slower than the speed of light.
G3A16 (A) What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
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G3B01 (D) How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
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*G3B02 (A) Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band?
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Since the 10 meter and 6 meter bands are affected similarly by propagation conditions.
*G3B03 (A) Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
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MUF = maximum usable frequency, which changes with time of day, season of the year and time in the sunspot cycle.
G3B04 (A) What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
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*G3B05 (A) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?
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LUF = lowest usable frequency.
G3B06 (C) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
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G3B07 (A) What does LUF stand for?
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G3B08 (B) What does MUF stand for?
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*G3B09 (C) What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
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The F layer splits into the F1 and F2 layers during the day.
G3B10 (B) What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
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G3B11 (A) What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?
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G3B12 (D) What factor or factors affect the MUF?
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*G3C01 (A) Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth?
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The layer order is D, E, F1, F2, lowest to highest.
G3C02 (A) Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
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Because the solar radiation creates more ions in the atmosphere.
*G3C03 (C) Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
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G3C04 (D) What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation?
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At higher angles, the radio waves just pass through into space or are absorbed.
*G3C05 (C) Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?
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G3C06 (B) What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
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G3C07 (D) What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
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*G3C08 (A) Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
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G3C09 (B) What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
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G3C10 (D) Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
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G3C11 (B) Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day?
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G3C12 (D) Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
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*G3C13 (B) What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?
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T4A01 (B) Which of the following is true concerning the microphone connectors on amateur transceivers?
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Some microphone connectors are common to many types of transmitters, but there are many custom, nonstandard types. A microphone connector can carry signals in addition to the voice signal and push to talk button (PTT). These could be signals for changing channels, turning on a light, or other functions of the radio. See some examples here.
*T4A02 (D) How might a computer be used as part of an amateur radio station?
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There are many, many free programs available to help you use your radio, including sending data and controlling your radio with a full screen user interface. Ham Radio Deluxe and FLDIGI are popular.
*T4A03 (A) Which is a good reason to use a regulated power supply for communications equipment?
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Here is an example of a regulated power supply. The voltage in an unregulated supply can fluctuate when the AC power input fluctuates, or when the load on the power supply changes, say, as you switch from receive mode (little power) to transmit mode (high power).
*T4A04 (A) Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions from your station?
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Harmonic emissions are multiples of your transmit frequency. For example, if you are transmitting on 3.815MHz, there are harmonics on 7.630MHz, 11.455MHz, 15.26MHz, and so on. These generally decrease in strength as the frequency increases. Modern transmitters have these harmonic filters built in so we don't have to worry about this issue (usually).
*T4A05 (A) Where should an in-line SWR meter be connected to monitor the standing wave ratio of the station antenna system?
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Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) is a measure of the power transfer efficiency between the transmitter and antenna. This is based on the fact that for maximum power transfer from the transmitter to an antenna, both have to have the same impedance. Transmitters are built with a 50 ohm impedance, so we try to build antennas with a 50 ohm impedance, too. If the impedance of the antenna is not 50 ohms, then there is a mismatch and some of the power from the transmitter reflects off the antenna back into the transmitter, to be wasted as heat. The SWR is simply the ratio of the impedances of the transmitter and antenna. Example: The transmitter impedance is 50 ohms, and a dipole antenna has an impedance of 30 ohms. The SWR is 50:30 or 1.67:1, which is usable. SWR values over 2 are not as good, and values over 3 may actually damage the transmitter. The SWR meter is connected between transmitter and antenna to read the SWR, and tell you how good your antenna system is working.
*T4A06 (C) Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station?
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A "terminal node" is an endpoint in a radio data network where data is delivered, for reading by a human operator typically. The TNC, terminal node controller, is a small box that catches the data from the radio and delivers it to a connected computer for storage or display. The TNC can also transmit messages from the computer into the packet network through the transceiver. Here is a typical TNC.
*T4A07 (C) How is a computer's sound card used when conducting digital communications using a computer?
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Hams use computers with programs such as FLDIGI to encode and decode data, for digital communications. Thus a ham QSO (communications contact) consists of typing messages to each other, rather than speaking.
*T4A08 (D) Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding?
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This is because a flat piece of copper has less inductance than a round wire having the same amount of copper. Less inductance means a lower impedance at high frequencies. Lightning consists of a wide bandwidth of frequencies, and a lower impedance path will conduct more of the energy to ground and cause less damage to your equipment.
*T4A09 (D) Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current flowing on the shield of a microphone cable?
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See a picture of a ferrite choke here. You can snap these around a wire and they will inhibit the flow of high frequency signals through the wire (by increasing the inductance of the wire). Ferrite is an iron powder heated and formed into a ceramic block under pressure.
T4A10 (B) What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver's receive audio?
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The alternator is the component of your engine that charges the battery, and the running engine spins it to make electricity. Some alternators generate radio frequency noise, or noise on the electrical system of the car, and this gets into the receiver or transmitter to cause this whine. It can be cured by using ferrite choke, as above, or filter capacitors on the power input wires to the radio. Sometimes noise is generated by the spark plugs as well.
T4A11 (A) Where should the negative return connection of a mobile transceiver's power cable be connected?
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It is best to connect your mobile radio's power wires as close to the battery as possible, to avoid interfering with other systems in your car. Also, it is best to have a fuse in each wire, not just the positive lead.
T4A12 (D) What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched whine on the audio from your mobile transmitter?
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*T4B01 (B) What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
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The same thing happens when someone yells into a cell phone. The audio sounds distorted to the other person.
T4B02 (A) Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
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VFO = variable frequency oscillator, a term for an oscillator (a device that creates a radio frequency signal) that is variable in frequency, by turning a knob on the radio. This is a bit outdated because RF signals are generally synthesized by a computer circuit these days, and the knob is simply another input to the computer program. But the term persists for simplicity.
*T4B03 (D) What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver?
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With FM transmission in particular, when no signal is being received, there is only loud noise coming out of the receiver. The squelch control mutes the receiver until a strong signal comes in, then the receiver is unmuted.
T4B04 (B) What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your transceiver?
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This is a lot like a speed dial memory on a cell phone.
T4B05 (C) Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver?
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A noise blanker listens for noise blips in the received audio and "blanks" them, meaning it turns the volume down for the split second the blip is happening. Your ear does not perceive the missing audio as disruptively as the noise blip, and the audio becomes easier to listen to.
T4B06 (D) Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low?
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Single sideband signals change in pitch as you tune your receiver across them on the band. You might like listening to the pitch a little higher or lower, so you would uses these adjustments to do that. These controls are also helpful if another station is transmitting nearby and causing QRM (interference), because they can push the interference out of the passband of the receiver and lessen its annoying effects. Also, RIT = receiver incremental tuning, which is just a fancy term for changing the tuning of the receiver a small amount.
T4B07 (B) What does the term "RIT" mean?
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*T4B08 (B) What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
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For example, CW (Morse code) needs only about 100-200Hz bandwidth for good reception, but this is much too narrow for voice, which needs about a 2.4-3.0KHz bandwidth. Most radios have adjustable filters for this. The filters can help reduce interference by filtering out unwanted signals.
T4B09 (C) Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in order to minimize noise and interference for SSB reception?
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T4B10 (A) Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter bandwidth to select in order to minimize noise and interference for CW reception?
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*T4B11 (C) Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term "repeater offset"?
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A repeater is receiving and transmitting at the same time, to repeat the signal from your radio at higher power, from a higher altitude. It is impossible to receive and transmit on the same frequency using the same antenna (think microphone feedback in a public address system), so the frequencies are "offset" by some amount. On 2 meters (144MHz), the offset is 600KHz (sometimes positive, sometimes negative by convention). On 70cm (440MHz), the offset is customarily +/-5MHz.
*T4B12 (A) What is the function of automatic gain control or AGC?
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*G4A01 (B) What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
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In this case, a "carrier" is a single frequency radio signal, usually heard when a ham is tuning his transmitter in preparation for a contact. It could be the result of a shortwave or military station. It is impolite to tune up on an occupied frequency, but at times a ham across the country cannot hear others conversing far away. A notch filter is a narrow filter that reduces the strength of such signals, which sound like loud whistles, so you can hear your conversation.
G4A02 (C) What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
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G4A03 (C) What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
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This can be useful when communicating with rare DX (distance) stations where there is a pileup of stations calling. The DX station will typically call CQ (calling any station) on one frequency, then listen up or down the band a few kilohertz for responses. This requires split operation, and most modern transceivers can do this.
G4A04 (B) What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
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This dip indicates that the tuning circuits are tuned to the proper frequency and that the power leaving the transmitter is probably maximized for the connected antenna system.
G4A05 (C) What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?
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G4A06 (C) What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?
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You can buy antenna tuners for about $130 and up to perform this function. Here are several.
*G4A07 (D) What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?
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An RF power amplifier connects between your transceiver and your antenna, and it amplifies the signal, giving you a higher power output. For example, an RF power amplifier might take 100 watts from your transceiver and produce 500 watts out, allowing you to talk farther. But there are limits. If you drive the RF power amplifier with 200 watts, it might be damaged.
G4A08 (D) What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
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*G4A09 (C) Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
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You have to be sure the transmitter stops transmitting before the receiver is connected to the antenna, else damage will occur to the receiver. This delay is built into modern transceivers.
G4A10 (B) What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
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CW = Morse code. Here are some examples of Morse code keys. The ones with the vertical paddles are used with keyers. Pressing one side causes a stream of dits to be sent, and pressing the other side sends a stream of dashes. By pressing the sides alternately, one can send dashes and dits to make the letters of Morse code.
G4A11 (A) Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
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G4A12 (C) Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
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Dual VFO = dual receiver. Some radios have two receivers.
G4A13 (A) What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?
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An attenuator is a circuit that reduces the strength of a signal.
G4A14 (B) What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?
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AFSK signals are digital in nature. The Automatic Level Control system in a transmitter causes distortion to digital signals.
G4A15 (D) Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?
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G4B01 (D) What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
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Such as this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oscilloscope.
*G4B02 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
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G4B03 (A) Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
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An oscilloscope gives a visual picture of the waveform and makes it easy to see what the problem is.
G4B04 (D) What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
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*G4B05 (D) Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
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*G4B06 (C) What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
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*G4B07 (B) What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
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This test exposes distortion in a transmitter. The distortion is seen as the interaction between the two tone frequencies in that other signals will appear at the sum and difference of these frequencies.
G4B08 (A) Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
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"Relative" means that the meter does not provide calibrated readings. However, you can make a measurement, change your antenna or transmitter, make another measurement and see whether the field strength increased or decreased. This is sometimes all a ham needs to get a radio system working adequately.
*G4B09 (B) Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
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By walking around the antenna in a circle and recording field strength measurements at regular intervals, one can plot the radiation pattern, to see in what direction(s) the antenna works best in.
*G4B10 (A) Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
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Power flows two ways between transmitter and antenna. We hope that all the power from the transmitter is radiated by the antenna. That is called forward power. Some of the power is usually reflected back from the antenna to the transmitter and wasted, because of impedance mismatch between the transmitter and antenna. This is called reflected power. These two readings can be plugged into a formula to compute SWR.
*G4B11 (C) Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
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An antenna analyzer connects to the antenna and feed line, sends a small signal to the antenna, and measures the impedance over a frequency range. The results are usually plotted on a computer screen, or are visible on a meter or digital display. This is useful to find the resonant frequency of an antenna (the frequency where it works best), or to determine the impedance of the antenna so that other circuits can be added to improve the impedance match with the transmitter. Here are some examples.
G4B12 (B) What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?
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*G4B13 (C) What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
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You would terminate the coax cable in a 50 ohm resistance (costing about a dime), then attach the analyzer and measure the impedance. Should be 50 ohms for a 50 ohm cable, at any frequency, something else for 75 ohm coaxial cable, depending on the length of cable and frequency. Common coaxial cable impedances are 50 ohms and 75 ohms (used by cable TV systems).
G4B14 (D) What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?
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Because watching a needle on a meter is easier (and smoother) than watching a jumpy digital readout.
G4B15 (A) What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
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Also understood to be distortion. Nonlinearity in a transmitter circuit causes distortion in a transmitted signal.
*G4C01 (B) Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?
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For example, placing a 0.01uf capacitor across the terminals of your stereo speakers would short out the radio frequencies while not affecting audio frequencies. This is called "bypassing" the speaker terminals, as the radio energy is bypassed to ground. This method can be used on just about any audio circuit.
*G4C02 (C) Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
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Possibly caused by a poor connection on an electric fence or power company pole.
G4C03 (C) What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?
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Filters are made to eliminate such interference.
G4C04 (A) What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
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Filters are made to eliminate such interference.
*G4C05 (D) What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
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An RF burn is a burning sensation on your skin when touching a piece of metal. Adding another ground wire of a different length could help, or switching to flat braid or strap in case a round wire were used.
G4C06 (C) What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
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*G4C07 (A) What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
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A piece of copper pipe mounted under the operating desk can help with this. Ground the pipe with a strap or short wire to a ground rod, and screw ground wires from each piece of equipment to the pipe.
G4C08 (A) Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
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Common mode = voltages appearing on both conductors in common. A snap-on ferrite device will increase the inductance of the audio cable and limit the RF currents that can flow.
G4C09 (D) How can a ground loop be avoided?
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G4C10 (A) What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?
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*G4C11 (B) Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor?
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DSP (digital signal processor) is a much broader term, but to hams, it's usually associated with filtering devices that reduce interference. This is generally built into the radio, but can be purchased in external speakers.
G4C12 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?
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Allowing a wider range of interference reduction.
*G4C13 (B) Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
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*G4D01 (A) What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
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By compressing or changing the frequency response of the voice signal. AM radio stations use the same technology.
G4D02 (B) Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?
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A voice signal has large peaks but low average power content. A speech processor amplifies the low level passages while limiting the power of the high level passages, compressing the audio into a signal with higher average power that is easier to receive on noisy ham bands.
G4D03 (D) Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
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*G4D04 (C) What does an S meter measure?
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S = received signal strength.
*G4D05 (D) How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
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For decibels (dB), every 10dB is a factor of 10 multiplier. 10db=10x, 20dB=100x, 30dB=1000x and so on. A factor of 2 = 3dB, and a factor of 4 = 6dB.
G4D06 (A) Where is an S meter found?
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*G4D07 (C) How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
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A factor of four is also expressed as 6dB, or 6 decibels. Every S-unit is about 6dB.
*G4D08 (C) What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
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The dial frequency of the receiver or transmitter is 7.178MHz in this case. Since we are using lower sideband (LSB), the audio information is below 7.178MHz. Since the bandwidth is 3KHz, the signal then stretches from 7.178MHz-3KHz=7.175MHz up to 7.178MHz. (Note that 3KHz=0.3MHz.)
G4D09 (B) What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
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G4D10 (A) How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
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*G4D11 (B) How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
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*G4E01 (C) What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
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The capacitance of the end of the antenna (the "hat") makes the antenna look longer, electrically.
*G4E02 (D) What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna?
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Lightning rods have pointy tips to attract lightning. Antennas have dull, blunt, tips with balls on them to avoid arcing using the same reasoning.
G4E03 (A) Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?
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*G4E04 (B) Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?
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*G4E05 (C) Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band?
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A good antenna size for 80 meters is a half wavelength, or 40 meters. This is not a good length for a mobile antenna! Shorter antennas are not as efficient radiators, and the bandwidth is limited.
G4E06 (C) What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
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G4E07 (D) Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle?
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G4E08 (A) What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?
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As in solar cells.
G4E09 (B) What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
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Many of these are connected in series to make usable voltages, such as 12 volts to run a typical ham radio.
*G4E10 (B) What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
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Diodes let current flow only in one direction, in this case from the panel to the battery.
G4E11 (C) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
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*T5A01 (D) Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?
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*T5A02 (B) Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?
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*T5A03 (D) What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?
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*T5A04 (B) What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction?
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*T5A05 (A) What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?
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*T5A06 (A) How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require?
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Matching the voltage of the typical automotive electrical system and battery.
*T5A07 (C) Which of the following is a good electrical conductor?
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*T5A08 (B) Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?
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*T5A09 (A) What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis?
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*T5A10 (C) Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?
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T5A11 (A) What is the basic unit of electromotive force?
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*T5A12 (D) What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current reverses direction?
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This used to be measured in cycles per second, but the name Hertz was substituted years ago. So, the electricity provided by the power company in the US has a frequency of 60 cycles per second, or 60 Hertz, or 60Hz as an abbreviation.
*T5B01 (C) How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
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Milli = 1/1000. So 1.5 amperes = 1.5 thousand milliamperes, or 1500 milliamperes.
*T5B02 (A) What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?
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K = 1000. This is 1.5 million Hertz, or 1500 thousand Hertz. The answer is 1500 thousand = 1500 KHz.
*T5B03 (C) How many volts are equal to one kilovolt?
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Kilo = K = thousand.
*T5B04 (A) How many volts are equal to one microvolt?
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Micro = 1/1,000,000.
*T5B05 (B) Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts?
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Milli = 1/1000. 500 milliwatts is 500/1000 watts, or 0.5 watts.
T5B06 (C) If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?
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T5B07 (C) If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz?
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The same frequency expressed in kilohertz will always be larger than the expression in megahertz. So 3.525MHz = 3525KHz. Hams use these interchangeably. You might be asked to check into a net on "three point five two five", or "thirty five twenty five". These are not ambiguous, because there are not many nets on 3.525 gigahertz!
*T5B08 (B) How many microfarads are 1,000,000 picofarads?
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Micro = 1/1,000,000. Pico = 1/1,000,000,000,000! They are a factor of a million apart, with pico being the smaller unit. So a million picofarads is one microfarad.
T5B09 (B) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?
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For decibels (dB), every 10dB is a factor of 10 multiplier. 10db=10x, 20dB=100x, 30dB=1000x and so on. A factor of 2 = 3dB, and a factor of 4 = 6dB.
*T5B10 (C) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
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With decibels, a decrease is negative, an increase is positive.
T5B11 (A) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?
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T5B12 (A) Which of the following frequencies is equal to 28,400 kHz?
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*T5B13 (C) If a frequency readout shows a reading of 2425 MHz, what frequency is that in GHz?
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*T5C01 (D) What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?
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T5C02 (A) What is the basic unit of capacitance?
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*T5C03 (D) What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
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T5C04 (C) What is the basic unit of inductance?
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T5C05 (A) What is the unit of frequency?
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T5C06 (A) What does the abbreviation "RF" refer to?
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T5C07 (C) What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space?
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*T5C08 (A) What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit?
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T5C09 (A) How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes?
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T5C10 (B) How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes?
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*T5C11 (B) How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120 watts?
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Since P=E*I, 120 watts = 12 volts * I, I = 120/12 = 10 amps.
*T5C12 (A) What is meant by the term impedance?
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Resistance is a special case of impedance. Remember studying the square root of -1 in math? Complex quantities? Impedance is a complex quantity with real and imaginary parts. The resistance is the real part. The reactance is the imaginary part.
*T5C13 (D) What are the units of impedance?
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T5D - Ohm's Law: formulas and usage
*T5D01 (B) What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
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*T5D02 (A) What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?
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*T5D03 (B) What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?
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*T5D04 (B) What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts?
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T5D05 (C) What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
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T5D06 (A) What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
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*T5D07 (D) What is the current flow in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?
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T5D08 (C) What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?
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T5D09 (C) What is the current flowing through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?
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*T5D10 (A) What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?
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T5D11 (B) What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?
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T5D12 (D) What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?
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G5A01 (C) What is impedance?
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*G5A02 (B) What is reactance?
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*G5A03 (D) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
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*G5A04 (C) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
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*G5A05 (D) How does an inductor react to AC?
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The reactance of an inductor is X = 2 * pi * f * L, where pi = 3.14159, f = frequency in Hz, L = inductance in Henries. The reactance goes UP as the frequency goes up.
*G5A06 (A) How does a capacitor react to AC?
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The reactance of a capacitor is X = 1 / (2 * pi * f * C), where pi = 3.14159, f = frequency in Hz, C = capacitance in Farads. The reactance goes DOWN as the frequency goes up.
*G5A07 (D) What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?
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G5A08 (A) Why is impedance matching important?
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*G5A09 (B) What unit is used to measure reactance?
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G5A10 (B) What unit is used to measure impedance?
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*G5A11 (A) Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
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*G5A12 (B) What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
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A Transformer is two inductors with their coils wound so that they share a magentic field. Current flowing in one coil causes voltages and currents in the other coil, in proportion to the number of turns in each coil and the tightness of the magnetic coupling.
G5A13 (D) Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
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*G5B01 (B) What dB change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power?
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*G5B02 (C) How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?
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Currents that divide into branches in a circuit and come back together must sum to the original value. That is, all the electrons must be accounted for!
*G5B03 (B) How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?
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P = E squared / R = 400*400/800 = 200 watts.
G5B04 (A) How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
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P = E * I = 12 * 0.2 = 2.4 watts.
G5B05 (A) How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance?
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P = I squared * R = 0.007 * 0.007 * 1250 = 0.061 watts = 61 milliwatts
*G5B06 (B) What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
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Note that E in the formula below is the peak voltage, which is half the peak-to-peak voltage! P = (Epeak * 0.707) squared / R = (200/2 * 0.707) * (200/2 * 0.707) / 50 = 100 watts
G5B07 (C) What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?
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The RMS (root mean square) value of a sine wave is 0.707 times the peak voltage. For example, an AC voltage with a 10 volt peak voltage has an effective or RMS value of 7.07 volts. That means the 10 volt AC voltage will heat a resistor as much as a 7.07 volt DC voltage..
G5B08 (D) *** QUESTION REMOVED BY QPC February 4, 2015**** What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
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*G5B09 (B) What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
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The RMS (root mean square) value of a sine wave is 0.707 times the peak voltage. So Vrms = 17 * 0.707 = 12 volts.
*G5B10 (C) What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
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The formula for decibels when comparing power values is dB = 10 * log (P1/P2). Using a little high school algebra, -1dB = 10 * log(P1/P2). We're looking for the ratio of the powers, P1/P2. Divide both sides by 10: -0.1 = log(P1/P2). Take the inverse log of both sides (use a calculator): 10^-0.1=P1/P2=0.794. The lost power is 100%-79.4% = 20.6%.
*G5B11 (B) What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
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Say your carrier has a peak voltage of 100V and the resistance of the load is 50 ohms. PEP = (100 * 0.707)^2 * 50 = 100 watts. Also, average power = (100 * 0.707)^2 * 50 = 100 watts, the same. But as modulation is applied, the peak voltage goes up, so that the PEP will be higher than the average.
G5B12 (B) What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
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P = E^2 / R, so E = sqrt(P * R) = sqrt(1200 * 50) = sqrt(60000) = 245 volts.
G5B13 (B) What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
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An unmodulated carrier has the same PEP and average powers.
*G5B14 (B) What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output?
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PEP = (Epeak * 0.707)^2 / R = (250 * 0.707)^2 / 50 = 625 watts.
*G5C01 (C) What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
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This is caused by the magnetic field of the primary intersecting the secondary winding and inducing a voltage in it.
*G5C02 (A) What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer?
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Transformers multiply voltages in one direction and divide them when connected in the other direction. The ratio is simply the ratio of the count of primary to secondary turns. For example, if the primary has 10 turns and the secondary 30, then the voltage multiplier would be 30/10=3 if connected with the source on the primary side. Connected the other way, the ratio would be 1/3.
*G5C03 (B) Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?
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Resistors in series add.
*G5C04 (C) What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?
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Equal resistors in parallel have a value equal to the value of one of the resistors divided by the total number of resistors.
G5C05 (C) If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
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G5C06 (C) What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
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500/2250 * 120 = 26.7 volts.
*G5C07 (A) What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?
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A transformer transforms impedances according to the square of the turns ratio. So 600/4 = (T1/T2)^2. Taking the square root of both sides, T1/T2=12.2.
*G5C08 (D) What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
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Capacitor values in parallel add. So 5nf+5nf+0.75nf=10.75nf (converting the 750 picofarads to nanofarads).
*G5C09 (C) What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
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Capacitors of equal values in series have a total value of one of the capacitors divided by the number of capacitors.
*G5C10 (C) What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
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Paralled equal value inductors divide in value like resistors, in this case 10mh/3 = 3.3mh.
*G5C11 (C) What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?
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Inductor values in series add together.
*G5C12 (B) What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?
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Use C = (C1*C2)/(C1 + C2), called product over the sum.
G5C13 (C) Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
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G5C14 (D) Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
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*G5C15 (A) What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?
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The general formula is R = 1/((1/R1) + (1/R2) + (1/R3)), for as many resistors in parallel that you have. This is R = 1/((1/10) + (1/20) + (1/50)) = 5.9 ohms. You could also use the product over the sum formula twice!
G5C16 (B) Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?
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In a transformer, the voltage steps up according to the turns ratio, but the current steps down. This happens because the transformer cannot create power. So if the primary voltage is 100 volts and the current is 2 amps, the primary power is 200 watts. If the transformer's secondary voltage is 50 volts, the current goes up to 4 amps, producing again 200 watts.
*G5C17 (C) What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 pF capacitor?
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Nanofarads are 1000 times as large as picofarads. So there are 22nf in 22,000pf.
*G5C18 (D) What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?
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Microfarads are 1000 times as large as nanofarads.
T6A01 (B) What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit?
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*T6A02 (C) What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?
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This is composed of some resistive material (usually a paint) deposited on a flat surface with a contact that slides along the material, making the resistor variable in length and resistance value (ohms).
T6A03 (B) What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?
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*T6A04 (B) What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?
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*T6A05 (D) What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?
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*T6A06 (C) What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?
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T6A07 (D) What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire?
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*T6A08 (B) What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits?
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Just like a light switch!
T6A09 (A) What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?
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T6A10 (D) Which of the following battery types is rechargeable?
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Nickel-metal hydride are the typical 9V rechargeables. Lithium-ion batteries are used in your cell phone and laptop computer. Lead-acid batteries are used in automobiles and stationary power backup applications.
T6A11 (B) Which of the following battery types is not rechargeable?
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*T6B01 (D) What class of electronic components is capable of using a voltage or current signal to control current flow?
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*T6B02 (C) What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?
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*T6B03 (C) Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch or amplifier?
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T6B04 (B) Which of the following components can be made of three layers of semiconductor material?
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T6B05 (A) Which of the following electronic components can amplify signals?
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T6B06 (B) How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode usually identified?
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T6B07 (B) What does the abbreviation LED stand for?
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*T6B08 (A) What does the abbreviation FET stand for?
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*T6B09 (C) What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode?
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*T6B10 (A) What are the three electrodes of a PNP or NPN transistor?
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*T6B11 (B) What at are the three electrodes of a field effect transistor?
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T6B12 (A) What is the term that describes a transistor's ability to amplify a signal?
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See the referenced diagrams here.
T6C01 (C) What is the name for standardized representations of components in an electrical wiring diagram?
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T6C02 (A) What is component 1 in figure T1?
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T6C03 (B) What is component 2 in figure T1?
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T6C04 (C) What is component 3 in figure T1?
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T6C05 (C) What is component 4 in figure T1?
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T6C06 (B) What is component 6 in figure T2?
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T6C07 (D) What is component 8 in figure T2?
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T6C08 (C) What is component 9 in figure T2?
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T6C09 (D) What is component 4 in figure T2?
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T6C10 (D) What is component 3 in figure T3?
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T6C11 (A) What is component 4 in figure T3?
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T6C12 (A) What do the symbols on an electrical circuit schematic diagram represent?
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T6C13 (C) Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical circuit schematic diagrams?
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The schematic is an abstract representation of the circuit.
T6D01 (B) Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?
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Also known as a diode. The term rectifier is usually used for higher power diodes used in power supplies.
T6D02 (A) What best describes a relay?
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*T6D03 (A) What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T2?
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Meaning that it has a single set of contacts capable of carrying current, and the switch has only one ON position (the throw). Other switches can have multiple sets of contacts (poles), and have two or more ON positions.
*T6D04 (C) Which of the following can be used to display signal strength on a numeric scale?
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The "bars" indicator on a cell phone is an example of a graphical meter.
T6D05 (A) What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?
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T6D06 (B) What component is commonly used to change 120V AC house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses?
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T6D07 (A) Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?
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Light emitting diode.
*T6D08 (D) Which of the following is used together with an inductor to make a tuned circuit?
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T6D09 (C) What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
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*T6D10 (C) What is the function of component 2 in Figure T1?
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This is a transistor, where a small current into the center terminal (called the base) controls a larger current flowing between the other two terminals (the collector, on the top, and the emitter, with the arrow).
T6D11 (A) What is a simple resonant or tuned circuit?
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*T6D12 (C) Which of the following is a common reason to use shielded wire?
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*G6A01 (C) What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
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Discharging below this level will damage the battery.
*G6A02 (B) What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?
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Remember that I = E / R, so if E is the battery voltage, a lower R makes for a higher current available from the battery. This is important for transmitters that can draw high currents in short bursts.
*G6A03 (B) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
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The junction threshold is the voltage required to make current flow. The diode allows current to flow in only one direction, but it does take some voltage to make that start to happen.
G6A04 (D) When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?
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Recharging one of these batteries will cause a rupture or explosion.
G6A05 (C) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?
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G6A06 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode?
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Lower capacitance means that the diode can switch on and off faster (at radio frequencies) because there is less capacitance storing charge.
*G6A07 (A) What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?
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These correspond to the 0 and 1 values spoken of in digital and computer circuitry.
G6A08 (D) Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?
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*G6A09 (B) Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
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MOSFET = metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor.
*G6A10 (A) Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
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*G6A11 (B) Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
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G6A12 (A) What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
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G6A13 (D) Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?
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*G6A14 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
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The dielectric (material between the plates) is ceramic, which is cheap to make.
*G6A15(C) Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
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The dielectric is a chemical layer on aluminum film, making it very thin and allowing for high capacitances.
G6A16 (C) What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?
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Some resistors increase in value with temperature, some decrease.
*G6A17 (B) Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?
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A resistor make of a winding of wire looks and acts like an inductor as well.
*G6A18 (D) What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
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A toroid core looks like a doughnut. The coil is wound by passing wire through the hole in the core multiple times.
G6A19 (C) How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance?
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*G6B01 (D) Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?
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In this case "linear" implies an analog circuit (not digital).
G6B02 (B) What is meant by the term MMIC?
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G6B03 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
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CMOS = complementary metal oxide semiconductor. TTL = transistor - transistor logic. 99% of integrated circuits made today are CMOS for this reason of low power consumption.
G6B04 (B) What is meant by the term ROM?
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G6B05 (C) What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile?
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*G6B06 (D) What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
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This is used as an amplifier, typically not in a digital circuit. An analog circuit implies continuously changing voltages, and digital implies only two voltages, representing 1 and 0.
G6B07 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of an LED indicator compared to an incandescent indicator?
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*G6B08 (D) How is an LED biased when emitting light?
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*G6B09 (A) Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
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Many alarm clock displays are LCDs (gray). Displays that glow red or green in the dark are made of LEDs and consume a lot more power.
*G6B10 (A) What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
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G6B11 (B) What is a microprocessor?
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*G6B12 (D) Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
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*G6B13 (C) Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
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*G6B14 (C) Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
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G6B15 (B) What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
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*G6B16 (A) Which of the following describes a type N connector?
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G6B17 (C) What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
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*G6B18 (B) What is a type SMA connector?
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*T7A01 (B) Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?
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T7A02 (B) What is a transceiver?
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*T7A03 (B) Which of the following is used to convert a radio signal from one frequency to another?
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A mixer takes two signals at frequencies F1 and F2, and produces output signals whose frequencies are F1-F2 and F1+F2 (sum and difference). This is useful for shifting frequencies up and down, while not disturbing their information content.
*T7A04 (C) Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?
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*T7A05 (D) What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal of a desired frequency?
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Similar to a tuning fork in structure and function.
T7A06 (C) What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal?
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T7A07 (D) What is meant by term "PTT"?
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*T7A08 (C) Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?-
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T7A09 (B) Which of the following devices is most useful for VHF weak-signal communication?
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Most weak signal VHF work is done using single sideband or CW (Morse code).
T7A10 (B) What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver?
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T7A11 (A) Where is an RF preamplifier installed?
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To make the receiver more sensitive to weak signals.
*T7B01 (D) What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
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T7B02 (A) What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?
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*T7B03 (D) Which of the following may be a cause of radio frequency interference?
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T7B04 (D) Which of the following is a way to reduce or eliminate interference by an amateur transmitter to a nearby telephone?
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T7B05 (A) How can overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?
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*T7B06 (A) Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station's transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?
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*T7B07 (D) Which of the following may be useful in correcting a radio frequency interference problem?
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*T7B08 (D) What should you do if something in a neighbor's home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?
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*T7B09 (A) What is a Part 15 device?
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T7B10 (D) What might be the problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible?
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T7B11 (C) What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?
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T7B12 (D) What might be the first step to resolve cable TV interference from your ham radio transmission?
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*T7C01 (A) What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
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This is a device that connects to your transmitter or transmission line and absorbs all the power reaching it, without radiating it. This allows you to test your gear without interfering with others.
T7C02 (B) Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?
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T7C03 (A) What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)?
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*T7C04 (C) What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?
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T7C05 (A) What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power?
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*T7C06 (D) What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?
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T7C07 (C) What happens to power lost in a feed line?
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T7C08 (D) What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feed line and antenna are properly matched?
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*T7C09 (A) Which of the following is the most common cause for failure of coaxial cables?
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It is important to take care of your system! Sealing connectors against the elements is vital.
T7C10 (D) Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
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T7C11 (C) What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?
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*T7C12 (B) Which of the following is a common use of coaxial cable?
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T7C13 (B) What does a dummy load consist of?
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T7D01 (B) Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force?
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*T7D02 (B) What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit?
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*T7D03 (A) How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit?
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T7D04 (D) Which instrument is used to measure electric current?
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*T7D05 (D) What instrument is used to measure resistance?
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*T7D06 (C) Which of the following might damage a multimeter?
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When measuring resistance, all circuits should be depowered.
T7D07 (D) Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter?
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T7D08 (C) Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use?
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T7D09 (C) What is the characteristic appearance of a cold solder joint?
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*T7D10 (B) What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across an unpowered circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?
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T7D11 (B) Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?
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T7D12 (B) Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?
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*G7A01 (B) What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?
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*G7A02 (D) Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
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*G7A03 (D) What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?
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G7A04 (D) What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
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*G7A05 (B) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
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*G7A06 (D) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
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*G7A07 (A) What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
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*G7A08(C) Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
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For the diagram, see this page.
G7A09 (C) Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
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G7A10 (D) Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
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G7A11 (B) Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
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G7A12 (C) Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?
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G7A13 (A) Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
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*G7B01 (A) Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit?
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*G7B02 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?
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*G7B03 (B) Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?
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*G7B04 (C) Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
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*G7B05 (C) How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
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Each of the bits has two states. The total number of states is 2 to the power of 3 in this case, or 2*2*2=8. A four bit counter would have 2*2*2*2=16 states.
*G7B06 (A) What is a shift register?
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G7B07 (D) What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?
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*G7B08 (B) How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
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*G7B09 (C) What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
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The formula is 1 / (2 * pi * sqrt(L * C)).
*G7B10 (D) Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?
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*G7B11 (B) For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
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*G7B12 (D) Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
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G7B13 (B) What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
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*G7B14 (B) Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
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*G7C01 (B) Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?
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G7C02 (D) Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?
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G7C03 (C) What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
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G7C04 (D) What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?
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*G7C05 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
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*G7C06 (B) What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
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*G7C07 (C) What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
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G7C08 (D) What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?
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*G7C09 (D) Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?
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*G7C10 (B) How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?
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*G7C11 (A) What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
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*T8A01 (C) Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?
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*T8A02 (A) What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?
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*T8A03 (C) Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
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Single sideband, because it is bandwidth efficient and receivers can be made quite sensitive to pick signals out of noise (which results from long distance contacts).
*T8A04 (D) Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?
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Frequency Modulation because over local distances it provides a low noise contact. Historically, hams used surplus military or commercial FM transceivers, which biased these bands toward FM for local use.
*T8A05 (C) Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth?
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CW = Morse code, bandwidth of 100Hz-150Hz.
T8A06 (A) Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF and UHF single-sideband communications?
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*T8A07 (C) What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions?
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SSB bandwidth is about 2.4-3.0KHz, and FM is typically 15KHz.
T8A08 (B) What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband voice signal?
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*T8A09 (C) What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal?
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T8A10 (B) What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band?
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This is the same television as we had before digital TV replaced all analog TV channels.
T8A11 (B) What is the approximate maximum bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?
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*T8B01 (D) [97.301, 97.207(c)] Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?
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The satellites have different uplink (to the satellite) and downlink frequencies.
*T8B02 (B) [97.313] How much transmitter power should be used on the uplink frequency of an amateur satellite or space station?
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This saves power on the satellite.
T8B03 (D) Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?
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T8B04 (B) [97.301, 97.207(c)] Which amateur stations may make contact with an amateur station on the International Space Station using 2 meter and 70 cm band amateur radio frequencies?
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T8B05 (D) What is a satellite beacon?
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T8B06 (B) Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?
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These have to do with the motion of the satellite around the Earth.
*T8B07 (C) With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift?
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The satellite is moving very fast, and radio signals shift in frequency, up or down depending on the motion of the satellite toward or away from you.
T8B08 (B) What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in mode U/V?
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That is, UHF/VHF.
T8B09 (B) What causes spin fading when referring to satellite signals?
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T8B10 (C) What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite?
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These satellites are not stationary, as seen from the ground. They have rises and sets like the sun, and must be tracked to be used for communication.
T8B11 (C) What is a commonly used method of sending signals to and from a digital satellite?
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FM packet is a digital mode.
*T8C01 (C) Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?
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Using a directional antenna, you can sweep the antenna around in a circle and get a bearing on the interfering signal. Doing this from two different positions allows triangulation and location of the source.
T8C02 (B) Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?
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*T8C03 (A) What popular operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period of time?
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There are such contests almost every weekend of the year.
T8C04 (C) Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a radio contest?
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*T8C05 (A) What is a grid locator?
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There Google maps based on these grid locators, so you can type in the locator and see where it is on Earth. For example, go to this site and enter this as the grid locator: fm07ag.
T8C06 (B) How is access to an IRLP node accomplished?
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That is, touch tone signals, which can be dialed on most radios just like on a telephone.
T8C07 (B) [97.215(c)] What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting telecommand signals to radio controlled models?
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Or 100 milliwatts.
*T8C08 (C) [97.215(a)] What is required in place of on-air station identification when sending signals to a radio control model using amateur frequencies?
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*T8C09 (C) How might you obtain a list of active nodes that use VoIP?
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This is a printed book or web site such as this online repeater directory.
*T8C10 (D) How do you select a specific IRLP node when using a portable transceiver?
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IRLP = internet relay linking project. Entering the node ID on your radio connects your local repeater to another one through the Internet. Then you can talk to remote stations.
T8C11 (A) What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the Internet?
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T8C12 (D) What is meant by Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) as used in amateur radio?
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T8C13 (A) What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?
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T8D01 (D) Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method?
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There are many, many digital modes in ham radio. Only a few are popular, such as PSK31 on the HF bands.
*T8D02 (A) What does the term "APRS" mean?
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APRS = Automatic Packet Reporting System. These systems take GPS location information from a ham's radio and GPS receiver and relay it through a network to make it available to other hams. Hams use this capability for logging their location, say on a hike or car trip.
T8D03 (D) Which of the following devices provides data to the transmitter when sending automatic position reports from a mobile amateur radio station?
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*T8D04 (C) What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC?
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This is the analog television signal format that was broadcast by TV stations in the US before digital television.
T8D05 (A) Which of the following is an application of APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System)?
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*T8D06 (B) What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
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This is a method of digital modulation.
T8D07 (D) What is PSK31?
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Typically used on the HF bands because it is low bandwidth and tolerant of noise.
T8D08 (D) Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions?
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*T8D09 (C) What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands?
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Morse code has changed over the years. International Morse has been standardized worldwide.
*T8D10 (D) Which of the following can be used to transmit CW in the amateur bands?
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*T8D11 (C) What is an ARQ transmission system?
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*G8A01 (B) How is an FSK signal generated?
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FSK = frequency shift keying. Typically, a 1 is a certain frequency of tone, and a 0 is another. By shifting the tone frequency, a series of 1's and 0's can be sent.
*G8A02 (B) What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?
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This is typically compatible with FM (frequency modulation), and used to convey voice.
*G8A03 (D) What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
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*G8A04 (B) What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
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The reactance of a capacitor or inductor changes, and this changes the phase of an RF signal, modulating the signal with information.
*G8A05 (D) What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
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AM radio stations use this method of modulation. Single sideband is similar, but optimized in several ways.
*G8A06 (C) What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation?
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In AM transmission, half the power is used to send the carrier wave, which carries no information. The other half appears in the two sidebands, which carry information. However, both sidebands carry the same information, so only one needs to be sent. Thus, SSB can use 25% of the power of an AM transmission and reach the same distance.
G8A07 (A) Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?
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G8A08 (D) Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?
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And distored audio.
G8A09 (B) What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
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*G8A10 (C) What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?
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The signal viewed on an oscilloscope shows not a smooth waveform, but one with flat tops and bottoms, which are distortion.
*G8A11 (A) What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?
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*G8B01 (A) What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
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The mixer produces the sum and difference of the input signals' frequencies.
*G8B02 (B) If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
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Because of the product and sum operation of the mixer, it is possible that two signals, the desired signal and an interferer, can produce output at the same frequency on the output of the mixer. This is usually prevented by filtering out the image frequency on the input of the mixer.
G8B03 (A) What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
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*G8B04 (D) What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
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Transmitter signals are usually generated at lower frequencies that are easier to design circuits for, then mixed or multiplied up to the final frequency.
G8B05 (D) What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR3 signal at maximum data rate?
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*G8B06 (D) What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?
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Carson's Rule states that the approximate bandwidth is 2 x (deviation + modulating frequency), which is 2(5+3)=16KHz.
*G8B07 (B) What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
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The 146.5MHz output frequency is generated by multiplying the oscillator frequency by a factor of 146.5/12.21=12. The oscillator is frequency modulated, and the deviation of it ends up being 5KHz at 146.5MHz. So the deviation of the oscillator is actually 5KHz/12=416.7Hz.
G8B08 (B) Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?
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Higher duty cycle means more total time transmitting, which provides the transmitter less time to cool between transmissions.
*G8B09 (D) Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
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This means, narrow the receiver's bandwidth to match the communication being received, and by doing so you will remove noise outside that band and make it easier to receive the communication.
G8B10 (B) What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
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G8C - Digital emission modes
*G8C01 (B) Which of the following digital modes is designed to operate at extremely low signal strength on the HF bands?
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And consequently these modes can communicate where CW or voice would fail. They are very narrow bandwidth (4Hz), way too small for voice. It takes a minute to send some little information, so they are slow. But the small bandwidth eliminates much noise and allows reliable communication with very little power, over long distances.
*G8C02(A) How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
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This is called varicode. Morse code works the same way, with the letter E being only one dit, where a lesser used letter, like C, is dah dit dah dit. This raises the average speed of the code.
G8C03 (C) What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
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*G8C04 (C) Which of the following describes Baudot code?
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Baudot is used on RTTY (radioteletype) transmission.
G8C05 (A) In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
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NAK = negative acknowledgement.
*G8C06 (B) What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?
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*G8C07 (B) How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
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ARQ = automatic repeat request.
G8C08 (B) Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?
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G8C09 (A) What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?
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*G8C10 (C) How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
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ISBN numbers on books also have redundancy built in.
*G8C11 (D) How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?
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G8C12 (A) Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?
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*T9A01 (C) What is a beam antenna?
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*T9A02 (B) Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas?
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This is an arbitrary convention, but is agreed by engineers worldwide. Note that the magnetic and electric fields are always perpendicular.
*T9A03 (B) Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface?
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*T9A04 (A) What is a disadvantage of the "rubber duck" antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers?
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*T9A05 (C) How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency?
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The half wave length in feet is approximately 468/frequency, in MHz. So at 3.815MHz, the length of a half wave dipole antenna is 468/3.815=122.7 feet. Notice that for a higher frequency, the length goes down.
T9A06 (C) What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish?
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T9A07 (A) What is a good reason not to use a "rubber duck" antenna inside your car?
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*T9A08 (C) What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?
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The half wave length in feet is approximately 468/frequency, in MHz. So at 146MHz, the length of a half wave dipole antenna is 468/146=3.21 feet. Halve that for a quarter wavelength, or 1.60 feet, or 19.2 inches. You can also do the math using: wavelength=300,000,000/frequency, but the units are in meters.
*T9A09 (C) What is the approximate length, in inches, of a 6 meter 1/2-wavelength wire dipole antenna?
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A half wave length at 6 meters is 3 meters, and that amounts to 3 * 39.4 inches/meter = 118 inches.
*T9A10 (C) In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-wave dipole antenna in free space?
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*T9A11 (C) What is meant by the gain of an antenna?
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T9A12 (A) What is a reason to use a properly mounted 5/8 wavelength antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?
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T9A13 (C) Why are VHF or UHF mobile antennas often mounted in the center of the vehicle roof?
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*T9A14 (A) Which of the following terms describes a type of loading when referring to an antenna?
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Many mobile antennas have such an inductor either at the base or in the middle of the antenna.
*T9B01 (B) Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feed line?
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Coax is adversely affected by high SWR. Open wire or ladder line is not.
T9B02 (B) What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur radio installations?
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*T9B03 (A) Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?
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*T9B04 (A) What does an antenna tuner do?
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*T9B05 (D) What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?
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*T9B06 (B) Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?
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*T9B07 (C) Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?
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T9B08 (A) Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion?
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T9B09 (B) What might cause erratic changes in SWR readings?
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*T9B10 (C) What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG-58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables?
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Generally, larger diameter coax cables have less loss than smaller ones.
T9B11 (C) Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?
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This is effectively two concentric copper pipes with air between them.
G9A01 (A) Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
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G9A02 (B) What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
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Hams will use surplus 75 ohm coax from cable TV systems.
G9A03 (D) What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
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*G9A04 (C) What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
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G9A05 (B) How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
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*G9A06 (D) In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?
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*G9A07 (D) What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?
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*G9A08 (B) If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
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The matching network allows the transmitter to see a low SWR, but the SWR on the line does not change.
*G9A09 (A) What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 200 ohm impedance?
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This is just the ratio of the impedances. 200:50 = 4:1. With SWR the higher number is always written on the left.
G9A10 (D) What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?
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*G9A11 (B) What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?
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G9A12 (A) What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 25 ohm impedance?
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G9A13 (C) What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to an antenna that has a purely resistive 300 ohm feed point impedance?
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*G9A14 (B) What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?
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*G9A15 (A) What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
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G9B - Basic antennas
*G9B01 (B) What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?
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A random wire antenna can cause high SWR conditions and RF appearing on equipment in your station. A resonant antenna cut to length is usually better.
*G9B02 (B) Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of a quarter wave ground plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
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G9B03 (B) What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to sloping downward?
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*G9B04 (A) What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in the plane of the conductor?
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*G9B05 (C) How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
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*G9B06 (C) Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
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*G9B07 (B) How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?
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*G9B08 (A) How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?
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G9B09 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?
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*G9B10 (D) What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
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Length of a half wave = 468/frequency in MHz. 468/14.25=32.8 feet.
G9B11 (C) What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
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G9B12 (A) What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
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G9C - Directional antennas
*G9C01 (A) Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
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*G9C02 (B) What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
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*G9C03 (B) Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
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G9C04 (A) Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
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*G9C05 (A) How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?
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*G9C06 (D) What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
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*G9C07 (C) What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
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*G9C08 (D) What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
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G9C09 (B) How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
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G9C10 (D) Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?
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*G9C11 (A) What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?
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*G9C12 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50 ohm coax feed line?
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G9C13 (A) Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?
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G9C14 (B) How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?
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G9C15 (B) Approximately how long is each side of the reflector element of a quad antenna?
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G9C16 (D) How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?
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*G9C17 (B) Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
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Thus the total length of the loop of wire is 1 wavelength.
G9C18 (A) What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna of any shape is moved from the midpoint of the top or bottom to the midpoint of either side?
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G9C19 (B) How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
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*G9C20 (A) What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?
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G9D - Specialized antennas
*G9D01 (D) What does the term NVIS mean as related to antennas?
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Reportedly good for vertically bouncing HF signals off the ionosphere and down to a nearby station. Avoid the signal hopping over nearby stations when using typical antennas (dipoles or verticals). This is typically a dipole antenna mounted close to the ground.
G9D02 (B) Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
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G9D03 (D) At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
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*G9D04 (A) What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
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*G9D05 (D) What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
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*G9D06 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
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*G9D07 (A) Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?
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*G9D08 (B) Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
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*G9D09 (B) Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?
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G9D10 (D) Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?
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*G9D11 (D) Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
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*T0A01 (B) Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery?
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*T0A02 (D) How does current flowing through the body cause a health hazard?
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*T0A03 (C) What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug?
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T0A04 (B) What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
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T0A05 (C) Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
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*T0A06 (D) What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?
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*T0A07 (D) Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feed line?
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*T0A08 (A) What safety equipment should always be included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits?
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*T0A09 (C) What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery?
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T0A10 (A) What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly?
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T0A11 (D) What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?
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T0B01 (C) When should members of a tower work team wear a hard hat and safety glasses?
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*T0B02 (C) What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower?
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*T0B03 (D) Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?
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*T0B04 (C) Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?
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T0B05 (C) What is the purpose of a gin pole?
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*T0B06 (D) What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?
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T0B07 (C) Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?
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T0B08 (C) What is considered to be a proper grounding method for a tower?
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*T0B09 (C) Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?
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*T0B10 (C) Which of the following is true concerning grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
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T0B11 (B) Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?
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T0B12 (C) Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?
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*T0C01 (D) What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals?
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*T0C02 (B) Which of the following frequencies has the lowest value for Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?
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See this site for a discussion of exposure regulations.
*T0C03 (C) What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure evaluation is required?
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*T0C04 (D) What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?
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*T0C05 (D) Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
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*T0C06 (D) Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
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*T0C07 (B) What could happen if a person accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting?
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T0C08 (A) Which of the following actions might amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess of FCC-supplied limits?
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T0C09 (B) How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?
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T0C10 (A) Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?
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*T0C11 (C) What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?
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*T0C12 (A) How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?
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*T0C13 (C) If the averaging time for exposure is 6 minutes, how much power density is permitted if the signal is present for 3 minutes and absent for 3 minutes rather than being present for the entire 6 minutes?
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G0A01 (A) What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
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G0A02 (D) Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
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G0A03 (D) [97.13(c)(1)] How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
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G0A04 (D) What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
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G0A05 (A) What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?
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*G0A06 (D) What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
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G0A07 (A) What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
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G0A08 (C) Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?
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See 97.13 here: https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/47/97.13.
*G0A09 (B) What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?
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G0A10 (D) What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
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*G0A11 (C) What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
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*G0A12 (B) What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
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G0B01 (A) Which wire or wires in a four-conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240 VAC single phase source?
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*G0B02 (C) What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?
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*G0B03 (D) Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
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*G0B04 (A) Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
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*G0B05 (B) Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
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*G0B06 (D) Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?
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G0B07 (B) Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?
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G0B08 (B) What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
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*G0B09 (D) Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
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G0B10 (A) Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
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G0B11 (D) Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?
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*G0B12 (C) What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?
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*G0B13 (A) What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
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*G0B14 (C) Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
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*G0B15 (A) Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
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